Ask Question
8 June, 12:49

In humans, a recessive allele of a gene on the X chromosome causes humans to be "colorblind." A colorblind XY man and an XX woman whose genotype is homozygous for normal color vision have children together. What percentage of their offspring are expected be colorblind?

+5
Answers (1)
  1. 8 June, 16:47
    0
    The answer is 0%.

    Explanation:

    If X⁻ represent the recessive allele that causes colorblind, and X⁺ represents the dominant allele, thus:

    X⁻Y is the genotype of the colorblind man (he is carrier and he has the disease)

    X⁺X⁺ is the genotype of the woman (she has normal vision and is not carrier)

    When they have children together, the offspring will have the following genotypes:

    X⁻Y x X⁺X⁺ = X⁻X⁺; X⁻X⁺; X⁺Y; X⁺Y

    Summarizing, they will be 50% X⁻X⁺ (women with normal vision, carrier) and 50% X⁺Y (men with normal vision, non carrier).

    No child will have the disease because its expresses when the genotype is homozygous for colorblind allele (X⁻X⁻).
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Get an answer to your question ✅ “In humans, a recessive allele of a gene on the X chromosome causes humans to be "colorblind." A colorblind XY man and an XX woman whose ...” in 📙 Biology if there is no answer or all answers are wrong, use a search bar and try to find the answer among similar questions.
Search for Other Answers