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20 July, 02:07

In humans, dimples are a trait that exhibits simple dominance. The two alleles for this trait are dimples (D) and no dimples (d). A dimpled man whose mother has no dimples marries a woman with no dimples. What is the probability that their first child will have dimples?

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  1. 20 July, 05:55
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    The probability is ½

    Explanation:

    Since the dimple trait is simple dominance, it therefore can be inherited in both the homozygous (DD) and heterozygous form (Dd). For non dimples we have (dd).

    Thus, for a dimpled man whose mother has no dimples, it can be concluded that he is an heterozygote. (For him to be dimpled with a non dimpled mom, his dad has to be either an homozygous/heterozygous dimpled man. Since his mom is non dimpled (dd), therefore he can only be an heterozygous)

    Therefore, a cross between a dimpled man (Dd) and a non dimpled woman will give.

    Dd x dd

    Dd dd

    ½ ½

    50% 50%
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