Ask Question
7 May, 03:35

Firm H has the opportunity to engage in a transaction that will generate $100,000 cash flow (and taxable income) in year 0. How does the NPV of the transaction change if the firm could restructure the transaction in a way that doesn't change before-tax cash flow but results in no taxable income in year 0, $50,000 taxable income in year 1, and the remaining $50,000 taxable income in year 2? Assume a 6 percent discount rate and a 34 percent marginal tax rate for the three-year period.

+5
Answers (1)
  1. 7 May, 06:01
    0
    The NPV will increase by $5,187 following the restructure of the transaction.

    Explanation:

    We have the cash outflow due to tax payment as followed:

    * Before transaction restructured:

    Tax payment of 100,000 * (1 - 34%) = $66,000 at the end of Year 0;

    => Present value of this cash outflow is: (66,000) / 1.06 = $ (62,264)

    * After transaction restructured:

    Tax payment at the end of year 1: 50,000 * (1 - 34%) = $33,000;

    Tax payment at the end of year 2: 50,000 * (1 - 34%) = $33,000.

    => Present value of this cash outflows are: (33,000) / 1.06^2 + (33,000) / 1.06^3 = $ (57,077).

    => Increase in NPV after transaction structured will be equal to the saving in present value of cash out flow = (57,077) - (62,264) = $5,187.

    So, the answer is NPV will increase by $5,187.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Get an answer to your question ✅ “Firm H has the opportunity to engage in a transaction that will generate $100,000 cash flow (and taxable income) in year 0. How does the ...” in 📙 Business if there is no answer or all answers are wrong, use a search bar and try to find the answer among similar questions.
Search for Other Answers