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14 October, 01:58

Why is the expectation value of the energy associated with the 1-D "particle-in-a-box" the same as the eigen value of the Hamiltonian associated with the 1-D "particle-in-a-box" wave function?

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  1. 14 October, 05:08
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    Answer: The average potential energy of the PIB is 0 irrespective of the wave function.

    Explanation:

    ⟨H⟩=⟨KE⟩+⟨V⟩

    the nn quantum number

    ⟨KE⟩ = (π^2 ℏ^2) / (2mL^2)

    the average kinetic energy of the wavefunction is dependent on

    ⟨V⟩=∫sin (kx) 0sin (kx) dx=0

    The average potential energy of the PIB is 0 irrespective of the wave function.

    ⟨H⟩=⟨KE⟩ = (π^2 ℏ^2) / (2mL^2)
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