If there is a barber who only cuts people's hair if they don't their own hair. According to the barber's own rules, can he cut his own hair? The rules state that he can only cut hair if the person doesn't cut their own hair, and the barber is wondering if he can, but the rules also state that the barber can't, because then, he would be cutting his own hair. Does this make sense, and what is your answer?

Question

Guest

12 August, 06:16

+2

Answers (2)

Know the Answer?

Tommy Wade · Answer 1

Its makes sense cause he cant cut peoples hair if they own it. so practically he owns his hair and he cut himself and the law doesn't allow that

Moss · Answer 2

Yes

Explanation:

I have cut my hair