Select the best answer. When we standardize the values of a variable, the distribution of standardized values has mean 0 and standard deviation 1. Suppose we measure two variables X and Y on each of several subjects. We standardize both variables and then compute the least-squares regression line. Suppose the slope of the least-squares regression line is - 0.44. We may conclude that (a) the intercept will also be - 0.44. (b) the intercept will be 1.0. (c) the correlation will be 1/-0.44. (d) the correlation will be 1.0. (e) the correlation will also be - 0.44.

Question

Mathematics

Kai Wilkinson

3 September, 07:06

Select the best answer. When we standardize the values of a variable, the distribution of standardized values has mean 0 and standard deviation 1. Suppose we measure two variables X and Y on each of several subjects. We standardize both variables and then compute the least-squares regression line. Suppose the slope of the least-squares regression line is - 0.44. We may conclude that (a) the intercept will also be - 0.44. (b) the intercept will be 1.0. (c) the correlation will be 1/-0.44. (d) the correlation will be 1.0. (e) the correlation will also be - 0.44.

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Ramiro Braun · Answer 1

(e) the correlation will also be - 0.44

Step-by-step explanation:

If

μx = μy = 0

σx = σy = 1

m = - 0.44

We know that the slope is the linear correlation is

m = r * (σy / σx)

⇒ r = (m*σx) / σy

⇒ r = (-0.44*1) / 1 = - 0.44