Ask Question
22 May, 10:28

In humans, having freckles is the result of a dominant gene, and not having freckles is a recessive trait. If a freckled man who is homozygous for this trait has a child with a woman who does not have freckles, which of the following best describes how their child would most likely appear?

A. Their child would not have freckles if the father passes on the recessive allele.

B. Their child would have freckles.

C. Their child would not have freckles.

D. Their child would have freckles since the mother is a carrier for freckles.

Can someone explain this for me?

+1
Answers (2)
  1. 22 May, 11:38
    0
    Its b because if you cross FF (freckles) and ff (no freckles) using punnet square or any method you will get 100% Ff. Since its recesive Ff means having freckles so the answer is b their child would have freckles
  2. 22 May, 11:39
    0
    The answer is C. Draw a Punnett square.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Get an answer to your question ✅ “In humans, having freckles is the result of a dominant gene, and not having freckles is a recessive trait. If a freckled man who is ...” in 📙 Biology if there is no answer or all answers are wrong, use a search bar and try to find the answer among similar questions.
Search for Other Answers