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17 September, 05:24

If a heterozygous woman without hemophilia had children with a man with hemophilia, what is the chance that their first child will have the disease?

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  1. 17 September, 06:39
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    1/2

    Explanation:

    let the alleles of the heterozygous woman without hemophilia be = Xhx

    And the alleles of the man with hemophilia be XhY

    If both XhY * Xhx; we have:

    Xh Y

    Xh XhXh XhY

    x Xhx xY

    XhXh and XhY are affected by the diseases

    Xhx is a carrier

    xY is normal

    ∴ the probability (chance) that their first child will have the disease is 2/4 of the total offspring

    =1/2

    ∴ the probability (chance) that their first child will have the disease is 1/2
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