Ask Question
20 February, 17:06

Does this gamete violate the law of independent assortment or the law of segregation

+3
Answers (1)
  1. 20 February, 19:11
    0
    A gamete cannot violate the independent assortment law itself. If Meiosis does not segregate chromosomes appropriately, that would be a violation of the law of segregation. The spindle apparatus is supposed to direct each chromosome of each pair of homologous chromosomes to a different cell during the first meiosis division. If that doesn’t work properly, then both chromosomes go to the same pole (and end up in the same daughter cell) and there’s none of them in the other pole (and in the other daughter cell) - that’s what we call an error of segregation. Those mistaken divisions are either non-viable (the cell does not originate an organism) or deleterious (the living organism has a disorder that represents a clear disadvantage in the fight for existence). So they tend to disappear from one generation to another, as the selection process in evolution selects other organisms instead.

    The law of segregation is violated when 2 genes are linked. All gametes have linked genes - it’s just a matter of which 2 genes we are studying, that is to say: if those 2 are linked or not. Linked genes are the ones that are located in the same chromosome - so independent assorement is impossible. This leads to certain combinations of alleles to be clearly more frequent than others - they appear together more than 90% of the times. The exceptions occur when there is crossing over during Prophase I.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Get an answer to your question ✅ “Does this gamete violate the law of independent assortment or the law of segregation ...” in 📙 Biology if there is no answer or all answers are wrong, use a search bar and try to find the answer among similar questions.
Search for Other Answers