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29 May, 05:07

TP4.

LO 4.6If a company bases its predetermined overhead rate on 100,000 machine hours, and it actually has 100,000 machine hours, would there be an underapplied or overapplied overhead?

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  1. 29 May, 08:10
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    There would be no under-applied or over-applied overhead since the overhead applied will be equal to budgeted overhead.

    Explanation:

    Overhead application rate is the ratio of budgeted overhead to budgeted activity level. Overhead applied is overhead application rate multiplied by actual activity level. Under/over-applied overhead is the difference between overhead applied and budgeted overhead.
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