The owner of a single-family house in which he lives wants to sell. If he does not use discriminatory language in advertising, has not sold any other house within the past two years, and does not employ an agent, may he discriminate on the basis of race in selecting a purchaser?

Question

Business

Greyson Hurst

5 July, 12:44

The owner of a single-family house in which he lives wants to sell. If he does not use discriminatory language in advertising, has not sold any other house within the past two years, and does not employ an agent, may he discriminate on the basis of race in selecting a purchaser?

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Answers (1)

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Judith Sweeney · Answer 1

The answer is: No, he can't discriminate.

Explanation:

The Civil Rights Act of 1866 defined citizenship without distinction of race or color, and stated that all citizens are equally protected by the law.

So the owner of the house (as well as everyone else in this country) is prohibited by law to discriminate potential buyers on the basis of race.