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2 July, 02:22

Assuming P! = NP, which of the following is true?

(A) NP-complete = NP

(B) NP-complete / cap P = / Phi

(C) NP-hard = NP

(D) P = NP-complete

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Answers (2)
  1. 2 July, 03:35
    0
    Answer is B, see explanations.

    Explanation:

    Answer is (B) NP-complete∩P=ϕ

    Since, P≠NP, there is at least one problem in NP, which is harder than all P problems. Lets take the hardest such problem, say X. Since, P≠NP, X∉P.

    Now, by definition, NP-complete problems are the hardest problems in NP and so X problem is in NP-complete. And being in NP, X can be reduced to all problems in NP-complete, making any other NP-complete problem as hard as X. So, since X∉P, none of the other NP-complete problems also cannot be in P.
  2. 2 July, 04:38
    0
    B. NP-complete / cap P = / Phi

    Explanation:

    The is because no NP-Complete problem can be solved in polynomial time.

    Assuming one NP-Complete problem can be solved in polynomial time, then all NP problems can solved in polynomial time. If that is the case, then NP and P set become same which contradicts the given condition.
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