Sign In
Ask Question
History
Matilda Wilkerson
30 November, 00:32
Why was India the "middle-man" in ancient times?
+3
Answers (
1
)
Malia Hanson
30 November, 03:03
0
India was the middle man in ancient times, because they were the middle of the trade routes from europe to asia. Thus they are the middle men
Comment
Complaint
Link
Know the Answer?
Answer
Not Sure About the Answer?
Get an answer to your question ✅
“Why was India the "middle-man" in ancient times? ...”
in 📙 History if there is no answer or all answers are wrong, use a search bar and try to find the answer among similar questions.
Search for Other Answers
You Might be Interested in
Texas was once a territory of what country?
Answers (2)
A success of Jawaharlal Nehru was that he a. unified India and Pakistan b. abolished the caste system in India c. ended serious food shortages in India d. improved education in India
Answers (1)
Texas - Mexico Florida- Louisiana-France Oregon-Great Britain Which of the following completes the table above?
Answers (2)
What impact has technology had throughout history?
Answers (2)
What is the relationship between an imperialist nation and its protectorate answer?
Answers (1)
New Questions in History
What expedition did Thomas Jefferson establish to explore the West under the leadership of Lewis and Clark? The Northwest Passagers The Corps of Discovery The Mountain Rangers The Western Explorers
Answers (1)
How long did the American Revolution last? almost five years almost eight years just over nine years exactly eleven years
Answers (1)
Jurisdiction means the power to: make laws and enforce them coin and distribute money establish diplomatic relations tax
Answers (1)
How many people in america celebrate kwanza?
Answers (1)
How did the Colombian exchange alter the way native Americans of the Great Plains lived?
Answers (1)
Home
»
History
» Why was India the "middle-man" in ancient times?
Sign In
Sign Up
Forgot Password?