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31 October, 19:04

Which statement below is NOT true of Mesopotamian, Harappan, and Egyptian cultures c. 2500-2000 B. C. E.?

A. Each had generated considerable wealth while various artisans practiced specialized crafts.

B. Each had developed written languages that have been deciphered by modern linguists.

C. Each had developed interregional trade between their respective civilizations, exchanging regional products and some manufactured goods.

D. Each had developed irrigation works that allowed for more intensive agricultural production and this stimulated specialization of labor.

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  1. 31 October, 20:04
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    The correct answer is B. Each had developed written languages that have been deciphered by modern linguist.

    This is the statement that is false, because the Harappan writings are still not deciphered by the modern linguist. There's even a theory that it might not even be an actual writing system.
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