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10 August, 11:44

A man is convicted of a crime but did not have an attorney to represent him at his trial. Under what circumstances would this be unconstitutional according to Gideon v. Wainwright? If the man was unable to afford an attorney and the court refused to provide one If the man chose to not use his right to an attorney and represent himself If the man was insane and no attorney would choose to represent him If the man was unaware that he had the right to be represented by an attorney

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  1. 10 August, 12:45
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    If the man was unable to afford an attorney and the court refused to provide one I am a pro at this kind of history
  2. 10 August, 15:29
    0
    A. If the man was unable to afford an attorney and the court refused to provide one.

    The court is obligated to provide an attorney for citizens incapable of affording them.
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