Ask Question
20 March, 12:43

Why did the ottoman, safavid, and mughal empires decline more or less simultaneously?

+3
Answers (1)
  1. 20 March, 13:33
    0
    Because they faced same challenges. The first one~ complex changes in the military technology and in the world economy, the second~ increasing difficulty of basing an extensive land empire on military forces paid through land grants.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Get an answer to your question ✅ “Why did the ottoman, safavid, and mughal empires decline more or less simultaneously? ...” in 📙 History if there is no answer or all answers are wrong, use a search bar and try to find the answer among similar questions.
Search for Other Answers