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22 January, 17:24

What must be true of f (x) and g (x) if both are antiderivatives of f (x) ?

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  1. 22 January, 21:12
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    For a function f (x) to be anti-derivative of F (x), f' (x) should be equal to F (x).

    Similarly, for g (x) to be anti-derivative of F (x), then g' (x) should be equal to F (x).

    From this we can deduce that for both f (x) and g (x) to be anti-derivatives of F (x), then f' (x) should be equal to g' (x)
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