John says that if one side of an inequality is 0, you don't have to reverse the inequality symbol when you multiply or divide both sides by a negative number. Find an inequality that you can use to disprove John's statement. Explain your thinking.

Question

Barbara Burke

9 February, 02:05

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Answers (1)

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Joyce Wilcox · Answer 1

X >0

so x <0 if and only if x is - x

therefore u had to reverse the sign when multiplying by - 1

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