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29 July, 18:31

Is 40 (2x-16y) equivalent to 42-56y

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  1. 29 July, 20:42
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    No, 40 (2x - 16y) is not equivalent to 42 - 56y

    Step-by-step explanation:

    40 (2x - 16y)

    If we expand the above expression, we will have

    80x - 16y which is not equivalent to 42 - 56y
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