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22 August, 13:43

A bag contains balls numbered 1 to 20 if one is chosen at random what is the probability that it is prime

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  1. 22 August, 16:47
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    Answer: 8/20 or 40%.

    Step-by-step explanation: The prime numbers between 1 and 20 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, and 19. 8 in total, so 8/20. Divide 8 by 20 and you get 0.4 which transfers to 40%.
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