Ask Question
20 April, 23:33

Which of the following statements is the converse of the statement "If each of two angles has a measure of 28 degrees, then the two angles are equal in measure"?

1. If each of two angles does not have a measure of 28 degrees, then the two angles do not have equal measures.

2. If each of two angles does not have a measure of 28 degrees, then the two angles have equal measures.

3. If two angles have equal measures, then the measure of each is 28 degrees.

4. If two angles do not have equal measures, then each of the two angles does not have a measure of 28 degrees.

+1
Answers (1)
  1. 21 April, 00:04
    0
    3. If two angles have equal measures, then the measure of each is 28 degrees

    Step-by-step explanation:

    For an implication if p then q, the converse is if q then p.

    Here, we have the clauses ...

    p = each of two angles has a measure of 28°

    q = the two angles are equal in measure

    So, the converse is written as ...

    If two angles are equal in measure, each has a measure of 28°.

    This statement most closely matches statement 3.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Get an answer to your question ✅ “Which of the following statements is the converse of the statement "If each of two angles has a measure of 28 degrees, then the two angles ...” in 📙 Mathematics if there is no answer or all answers are wrong, use a search bar and try to find the answer among similar questions.
Search for Other Answers