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Mathematics
Hailey Middleton
25 March, 10:42
The inverse of f (x) = x^2 is also a function t/f
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Korin
25 March, 11:52
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False
Step-by-step explanation:
The inverse of f (x) = x^2 is not a function, since the graph fails the vertical line test: a vertical line drawn thru the graph intersects it in 2 places (except at (0,0)).
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Charlie Knapp
25 March, 12:14
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The Answer is false.
the function f (x) = x 2 is NOT one-to-one, and therefore cannot have an inverse. Therefore, the function f (x) = x 2 does NOT have an inverse.
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