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4 September, 18:48

Are the expressions 3{y+1} and 3y+3 equivalent for any value? explain

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Answers (2)
  1. 4 September, 20:23
    0
    yes

    Step-by-step explanation:

    It is because you need to times in the answer

    3 (y+1) mutiply it in!

    3times y and 3 times 1

    it equals to 3y+3
  2. 4 September, 21:35
    0
    Yes

    Step-by-step explanation:

    The distributive property states that a (b+c) = ab+ac. Working out the first equation, we see that 3 (y+1) is 3y+3. Because the second equation is 3y+3, they are also equal.
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