Is it true that since sin^2x + cos^2x = 1, then sin (x) + cos (x) = 1? Explain your answer.

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Mathematics

Lindsay Dyer

16 April, 10:52

Is it true that since sin^2x + cos^2x = 1, then sin (x) + cos (x) = 1? Explain your answer.

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Marsh · Answer 1

No it is not true because plugging in something like x = pi/4 radians (equivalent to 45 degrees) leads to the left side not being equal to 1. The left side will simplify to sqrt (2). So the equation is not true when x = pi/4 radians. There are infinitely other counter examples to use