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6 June, 17:48

Which of the following explains why f (x) = log4x

does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.

Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

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Answers (2)
  1. 6 June, 17:56
    0
    There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

    Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
  2. 6 June, 21:15
    0
    There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

    next answer is x=1

    Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

    Step-by-step explanation:

    just did it on ed
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Home » Mathematics » Which of the following explains why f (x) = log4x does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0. There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1. Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
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