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27 November, 19:59

A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1½ parts rice. If 1½ parts of beans are used, how much rice should be used?

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  1. 27 November, 21:48
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    Step-by-step explanation:

    The answer is 2 because if it is 1 1/2 for rice and 1 for beans then you add 1/2 to beans you should also add 1/2 to rice which would equal 2 because 2 halves make a whole.
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