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7 November, 19:56

Why does it takes 3 copies of 1/6 to show the same amount as 1copy of 1 / 2

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Answers (2)
  1. 7 November, 21:22
    0
    Because 1/2 ≠ 1/6.

    We know that 1/6 < 1/2, so we can set up an equation to see how many copies are needed for them to be equal.

    (1/6) x = 1/2

    [ (1/6) x] * 6 = [1/2] * 6

    x = 6/2 = 3

    This equation shows that 1/6 * 3 = 1/2, therefore we need 3 copies of 1/6 to equal 1 copy of 1/2.
  2. 7 November, 23:41
    0
    Because 3 times 1/6 is 3/6 which can be simplified to 1/2
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