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Mathematics
Gilbert Bruce
21 August, 01:47
Is a+b+a+b and 2 (a + b) equivalent?
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Kiley Hays
21 August, 04:04
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This is true, because of the distributive property. You can expand 2 (a + b) to be a + b + a + b
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Kamila Dominguez
21 August, 05:46
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Yes bc if you combine like terms u have 2 "a"s and one b so that would be the same as saying 2a and b so your answer is:
Yes.
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