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11 July, 13:57

Two angles and one side in a triangle are equivalent to those in another triangle. Are the remaining sides and angles equivalent?

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Answers (2)
  1. 11 July, 14:37
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    It depends if the one side is in between the angles or not.
  2. 11 July, 17:36
    0
    Yes, they would be equivalent because the only difference between them would be that they are reduced by a number.
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