Ask Question
9 December, 23:14

Joe gave the following argument: Since lim x→0 0 = 0,

(A) and since 0 = - 1 x + 1 x,

(B) we know that lim x→0 (-1 x + 1 x) = 0.

(C) But then, since lim x→0 (-1 x + 1 x) = lim x→0 (-1 x) + lim x→0 (1 x),

(D) we can say that lim x→0 (-1 x) + lim x→0 (1 x) = 0, which means that lim x→0 (-1 x) = - lim x→0 (1 x).

(E) no error

In which line, if any, has joe made an error?

+3
Answers (1)
  1. 9 December, 23:48
    0
    No error - A and B are completely right, and using the subtraction law D is right
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Get an answer to your question ✅ “Joe gave the following argument: Since lim x→0 0 = 0, (A) and since 0 = - 1 x + 1 x, (B) we know that lim x→0 (-1 x + 1 x) = 0. (C) But ...” in 📙 Mathematics if there is no answer or all answers are wrong, use a search bar and try to find the answer among similar questions.
Search for Other Answers