Ask Question
8 November, 12:14

Jake needs 8 cups of milk to make a chocolate shake for his family. His measuring device measures liquids by the pint. If 1 pint is equal to 2 cups, how many pints should Jake measure?

+1
Answers (2)
  1. 8 November, 12:52
    0
    8 cups * 1 pint/2 cups = 4 pints.
  2. 8 November, 16:01
    0
    If you would like to know how many pints should Jake measure, you can calculate this using the following step:

    1 pint ... 2 cups

    x pints = ? ... 8 cups

    1 * 8 = 2 * x

    8 = 2 * x / 2

    x = 8/2 = 4 pints

    The correct result would be 4 pints.
Know the Answer?
Not Sure About the Answer?
Get an answer to your question ✅ “Jake needs 8 cups of milk to make a chocolate shake for his family. His measuring device measures liquids by the pint. If 1 pint is equal ...” in 📙 Mathematics if there is no answer or all answers are wrong, use a search bar and try to find the answer among similar questions.
Search for Other Answers