Why should the government be able to take somebody's property without his or her consent? Give some examples of what you would view as legitimate uses of eminent domain.

Question

Social Studies

Libby Avila

6 September, 17:33

Why should the government be able to take somebody's property without his or her consent? Give some examples of what you would view as legitimate uses of eminent domain.

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Antwan Baird · Answer 1

In my view, the Government could only withdraw private property from a citizen if there is a technically proven public benefit. For example, in the case of road construction or land reform.

To accomplish this, the Government must comply with the requirements of the expropriation laws, supporting the public interest and guaranteeing individual rights.