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18 November, 12:04

Why is the top of the list of the highest-grossing films of all times dominated by movies made within the last 10 years? (Hint: Did The Dark Knight, made in 2008, really sell considerably more movie tickets than the classic Gone with the Wind, or is something else going on?) The highest-grossing films of all times is dominated by movies made within the last 10 years because:

A. the number of movies has increased. So, studios can make more money, in real terms, than they did in the past.

B. the number of movies has increased. So, studios can make more money, in nominal terms, than they did in the past.

C. the entertainment tax implemented by the government has reduced in the past 10 years.

D. the number of movies has increased. So, studios can make less money, in nominal terms, than they did in the past.

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Answers (1)
  1. 18 November, 14:47
    0
    The correct answer is that the price of the tickets has risen over time, which leads for the studios to make more money and in real terms than they did in the past.

    Explanation:

    As the top of the list means that the film which is on top of the list as in most liking film by the people and gathering the highest of all times.

    So, if the film is liking by the people the most will result in increasing or rise in the price of the tickets which in turn benefit the studios in earning the huge amount of money through this film and in the real terms. than it did in the past.

    NOTE: The correct option is missing so providing the direct answer.
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